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Thais put money into UKFI - in exchange for shares in that entity or perhaps just a loan

 

New shares are issued to UKFI rather than money loaned as previous

 

Easier and less transparent than in SWFC direct due to public access to filings

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Or maybe the Thais haven't put money into anything? It's only rumours about them paying the wages etc and it's most likely not true.

Bottom line is there could be a dozen reasons - just the timing and a different approach to funding that makes it interesting

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This may be just a way of putting the equity and debts into order before a complete buyout.

The people who have loaned money by way of a charge on the ground may have accepted some of the new shares with MM taking the majority. This way all owners of shares get their proportion of the resulting sale.

The shares may be £1 each but this may not relate to the value of these shares at the point of sale.

For instance any buyer might have agreed to pay £37 per share and this way the value of the purchase is over £30000000.

Only a theory but quite often when the shares are not floated on the stock exchange the nominal value is just a pound or even a penny and this has no meaning as no-one can just buy them from a broker as there has to be an agreement to buy.

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This may be just a way of putting the equity and debts into order before a complete buyout.

The people who have loaned money by way of a charge on the ground may have accepted some of the new shares with MM taking the majority. This way all owners of shares get their proportion of the resulting sale.

The shares may be £1 each but this may not relate to the value of these shares at the point of sale.

For instance any buyer might have agreed to pay £37 per share and this way the value of the purchase is over £30000000.

Only a theory but quite often when the shares are not floated on the stock exchange the nominal value is just a pound or even a penny and this has no meaning as no-one can just buy them from a broker as there has to be an agreement to buy.

Is it also possible that DA & any of the other Care Home Crew who still might be owed have also been allocated shares so that any debt to them is also cleared on an eventual sale.

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This may be just a way of putting the equity and debts into order before a complete buyout.

The people who have loaned money by way of a charge on the ground may have accepted some of the new shares with MM taking the majority. This way all owners of shares get their proportion of the resulting sale.

The shares may be £1 each but this may not relate to the value of these shares at the point of sale.

For instance any buyer might have agreed to pay £37 per share and this way the value of the purchase is over £30000000.

Only a theory but quite often when the shares are not floated on the stock exchange the nominal value is just a pound or even a penny and this has no meaning as no-one can just buy them from a broker as there has to be an agreement to buy.

Going by that then, they may have already bought us out and we are just waiting for the fit and proper persons test to go through?

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If its to do with new owners you would hope they have £3m or whatever the figure is to pay off the loans completely, not faff about giving them shares

Yes they would have the money but when buying shares they simply buy them all no matter who owns them.

It is simpler that way as if a company had multiple owners or other interested parties who had loan notes or charges the buyers would have to settle them all individually.

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Guest totemowl

Yes they would have the money but when buying shares they simply buy them all no matter who owns them.

It is simpler that way as if a company had multiple owners or other interested parties who had loan notes or charges the buyers would have to settle them all individually.

Can't see why it's simpler. In fact I just don't buy into this loan conversions theory.

All those who have loans have a secured, defined sum with a defined rate of return. It doesn't make sense that they would agree to have those loans converted into shares, whose value will go up or down based on how much the buyer pays for the club.

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Can't see why it's simpler. In fact I just don't buy into this loan conversions theory.

All those who have loans have a secured, defined sum with a defined rate of return. It doesn't make sense that they would agree to have those loans converted into shares, whose value will go up or down based on how much the buyer pays for the club.

It might not be simpler for those that have the loans secured but it would be simpler for the buyers. They may have said to MM that they don't want to deal with 3rd parties & when they pay for the club they want all debts cleared. At the end of the day it's all supposition, none of us know what's happening, if anything.

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Can't have a takeover this week not with ruddy tax returns to do

 

Feel free to ask for help on here MK.

 

I am sure someone from google can point you in the right direction.

 

You never know, might not have to do them at all.

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