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unless Milan issued them to himself, pending the take over by a Consortium who needed a larger amount of Shares than 1000 to split them properly?

That's what I thought. Otherwise, surely we've been taken over without anyone noticing?

Although, little worrying if the consortium are only divisible by 822,000...

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So would that mean (in simplistic terms) that either

 

a, We owed someone £822,000 and paid them back by way of shares in the company

 

or

 

b, Someone "lent" us £822,000 and we gave them shares as security.

 

or

 

c, could be summat totally different.

 

if someone from outside the Company ownership was given 822,000 shares for £822,000, then MM would have given the control of the club to someone for £822,000. Makes no sense since his asking price had been £30m to £40m.

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And if that's true - isn't whoever holds those shares the majority shareholders?

Don't understand any of this.

It's not difficult.

If there are 1000 shares in swfc and Milan owns 501 he has control of the company.

In this case 800,000 new ones have been created. They might be issued to Milan,Split with someone else. We have no idea.

What happens is that it's often a debt to equity swap. Someone who loaned swfc money might have accepted shares in return in lieu of the cash. Milan might still have 51%. Unfortunately no one actually knows at the moment.

If the Thais paid a months wages Milan might have issued them 800,000 swfc shares in return for stumping up the cash For example.

Fairly straightforward. We just don't have the details.

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Wednesday had been reported to have matched Rotherham's £800,000 bid for May in midweek and following talks with both clubs the 21-year-old has opted for a move to Hillsborough.

Edited by Freshfish
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Guest totemowl

And if that's true - isn't whoever holds those shares the majority shareholders?

Don't understand any of this.

Isn't it the case that these new shares can be distributed to existing shareholders (say 800 to 1) and allocated to new shareholders (eg 22,000)? Therefore MM's ownership might not be significantly affected.

That was my understanding of how a SH01 could be used.

(Ibbo might have said it better)

Edited by totemowl
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It's not difficult.

If there are 1000 shares in swfc and Milan owns 501 he has control of the company.

In this case 800,000 new ones have been created. They might be issued to Milan,Split with someone else. We have no idea.

What happens is that it's often a debt to equity swap. Someone who loaned swfc money might have accepted shares in return in lieu of the cash. Milan might still have 51%. Unfortunately no one actually knows at the moment.

If the Thais paid a months wages Milan might have issued them 800,000 swfc shares in return for stumping up the cash For example.

Fairly straightforward. We just don't have the details.

Thought the form said it was an issue to one shareholder?

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It certainly doesn't make sense that MM would issue new shares to a 3rd party for that sum

 

May well be that issued to UK Football Investments and then these have been lodged as security in an escrow account of sorts

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Isn't it the case that these new shares can be distributed to existing shareholders (say 800 to 1) and allocated to new shareholders (eg 22,000)? Therefore MM's ownership might not be significantly affected.

That was my understanding of how a SH01 could be used.

Didn't know that. Read MKs post as there being one new shareholder. This would make sense. Although is not helpful in seeing what they were issued for.

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This share issue is nowt to do with a takeover IMO, people are just wanting to believe so much there matching it together best they can. It's far more likely the share issue is to do with the loans being repaid by way of a share issue especially as it was in November and that's around the time the loan was due to be repaid, I remember reading in the accounts.

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